Urinary Tract Infection

[honeybees]

A little back story:

I got my very first UTI in March. I had mild to moderate bladder symptoms for a week before I decided to see the doctor because of back ache. Turns out the back pain was halfway unrelated and definitely not kidney related, however I took the 5 day dose of Levaquin 'just in case'... Note: I was given a urinalysis and told that I had white blood cells present and microscopic traces of blood. Keep in mind beyond the back ache, my bladder symptoms had dissapeared before the prescription due to natural treatment

Life goes on. I fully regretted taking the meds, but whatever. Two weeks later I started getting the same uti symptoms again!! So I go back into the 'walk in clinic' and I pee in a cup again to be told that I show 'the same things as the last time' on my dipstick or however they were testing. He wrote me a px for a stronger dose of Levaquin. He also said 'back aching' can generally come along with bladder infections and not to be worried about it.

I got home and questioned this entire process. I researched and saw that you should have a urine CULTURE done to see what type of bacteria is present and which antibiotic will work. I called them the next morning and requested it and went back in to give a sample.

It was sent off and they never called me back. In the meantime the symptoms dissapeared on their own in another week.

Today, AGAIN I started feeling a twinge of a UTI so out of curiosity I called back the clinic requesting my results.

Turns out I NEVER HAD AN INFECTION. MY CULTURE WAS NEGATIVE.
But they sent me out that day SAYING I had an infection based off that STUPID dipstick ....and I would've taken those strong antibiotics again for NOTHING!!
And now I'm left questioning if I even had a UTI the VERY FIRST TIME I went in!

How is this possible????? How can you have a patient test positive on an in office test and negative on a culture? Is this common? Can you have white blood cells be present without an infection?? I am beyond confused.